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KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

As a one-stop solution for preparation and its resources, we are bringing the KVS LDCE Geography question Paper and answers pdf 2023 with detailed solutions. We already have covered LDCE History and I can guess others may be looking for their respective subjects. Isn’t it?

So, the wait is finally over. Here is the Geography paper. Aspirants! Don’t undermine the level of difficulty, the KVS LDCE Geography question paper and answers PDF 2023 is equally useful for students preparing for UGC, NET, UPSC, Central, and State level teaching exams. So practice it wholeheartedly.

The Geography Paper is broadly divided into Geography of India, Physical Geography, Economic Geography, Political Geography, Human Geography, and World Geography. There are a total of 120 questions, with questions from almost every section.

By examining the departmental exam, one can gain a better understanding of the subject matter, and the level of difficulty they can expect to encounter on the KVS PGT Geography exam.

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If you want to download the entire KVS LDCE question paper and answers PDF, refer to our article “The Hidden Gems: KVS LDCE Question Paper 2023 download”. In this article, we’ve covered essential details about the LDCE, and all bilingual KVS LDCE 2023 question papers for all subjects are made available as a complete package.

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Now, students related to the geography subject, look at these questions and their given answers with us, understand them, and improve your preparation. Let’s get started.

KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

1. Urban geography is a sub-field of which of the following branches of human geography?

  1. Economic Geography
  2. Cultural Geography
  3. Settlement Geography
  4. Population Geography
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Settlement Geography

Settlement geography is the study of human settlements, their locations, spatial organization, and the processes that shape them. Urban geography focuses on the development, structure, and function of cities within the study of human settlements.


2. Which one of the following branches of geography belongs to Physical Geography?

  1. Population Geography
  2. Plant Geography
  3. Agriculture Geography
  4. Economic Geography
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Plant Geography

Plant geography, also known as phytogeography, studies the distribution of plant species and their patterns across physical landscapes, making it a branch of physical geography.


3. “Geography is concerned with the description and explanation of the areal differentiation of the earth’s surface.” This definition of geography was given by which one of the following?

  1. Richard Hartshorne
  2. Griffith Tayor
  3. Vidal de La Blache
  4. Alfred Hettner
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Richard Hartshorne

Richard Hartshorne, an American geographer, provided this definition. He emphasized the study of spatial differentiation and the unique characteristics of places on Earth’s surface.


4. Who among the following proposed the Nebular Hypothesis to explain origin of the earth?

  1. Chamberlain
  2. James Jeans
  3. Edwin Hubble
  4. Laplace
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Laplace

The Nebular Hypothesis, which suggests that the Earth and other planets formed from a nebulous cloud of gas and dust, was proposed by the French mathematician and astronomer Pierre-Simon Laplace in the 18th century.


5. Which one of the following planets is called inner planet?

  1. Jupiter
  2. Saturn
  3. Mars
  4. Uranus
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Mars

Mars is considered an inner planet because it is one of the four terrestrial planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars) located closest to the Sun, within the asteroid belt.


6. Which one of the following ages represents the age of the oceans?

  1. 3.2 billion years ago
  2. 3.4 billion years ago
  3. 4.0 billion years ago
  4. 2.4 billion years ago
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. 4.0 billion years ago

The age of the oceans is estimated to be around 4.0 billion years. This age aligns with the time when the Earth’s crust cooled enough to allow water to condense and form stable oceans.


7. At which one of the following places, the deepest drilling has been performed?

  1. Kola in Arctic Ocean
  2. Tallinn in Gulf of Finland
  3. Stockholm in Baltic Sea
  4. Vaasa in Gulf of Bothnia
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Kola in Arctic Ocean

The deepest drilling has been performed at Kola, located on the Kola Peninsula in the Arctic Ocean region. This drilling project, known as the Kola Superdeep Borehole, reached a depth of over 12 kilometers (7.5 miles).


8. Between which of the following ranges of angle from the epicentre of earthquake, the shadow zone of P – waves appears?

  1. 80° to 135°
  2. 105° to 145°
  3. 105° to 165°
  4. 107° to 158°
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. 105° to 145°

P-waves (primary waves) are seismic waves that can travel through both solid and liquid layers of the Earth. However, due to refraction and reflection within the Earth’s core, a shadow zone exists where P-waves are not detected between approximately 105° to 145° from the earthquake’s epicenter.


9. Which one of the followings was part of Laurasia?

  1. Africa
  2. Europe
  3. India
  4. Australia
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Europe

Europe was part of Laurasia (existed during the Mesozoic era), along with North America and Asia, before the supercontinent began to break apart into the continents we recognize today.


10. The highest recorded plate movement near Easter Island in Eastern Pacific is equal to which one of the followings?

  1. Less than 2.5 cm/year
  2. 15 cm/year
  3. 10 cm/year
  4. 7 cm/year
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. 15 cm/year

Easter Island is located on the Pacific Plate, which moves northwestward relative to the nearby Nazca Plate at a rate of approximately 15 cm/year.


11. Which one of the following seismic waves pass through core of the earth?

  1. L-Waves
  2. Surface Waves
  3. S-Waves
  4. P-Waves
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. P-Waves

P-waves (Primary waves) are the seismic waves that can pass through the core of the Earth. They are able to travel through both solid and liquid layers.


12. The extinction of dinosaurs is associated with which one of the following geolocial periods?

  1. Jurassic
  2. Cretaceous
  3. Triassic
  4. Devonian
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Cretaceous

The mass extinction event that wiped out the dinosaurs, along with many other species, occurred at the end of the Cretaceous period, approximately 66 million years ago.


13. Denudation includes which one of the following group of processes?

  1. Erosion and Volcanism
  2. Only Erosion and mass movement
  3. Mass movement and diastrophism
  4. Weathering, erosion, mass movement and transportation
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Weathering, erosion, mass movement and transportation

Denudation refers to the processes that wear down the Earth’s surface and include weathering (breakdown of rocks), erosion (transportation of weathered materials), mass movement (movement of materials downslope), and transportation (movement of materials by agents like water, wind, or ice).


14. Which one of the following factors of soil formation is the most active factor?

  1. Parent material
  2. Topography
  3. Climate
  4. Time
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Climate

Climate is considered the most active factor of soil formation because it directly influences the rate and type of weathering, the amount and distribution of precipitation, temperature fluctuations, and biological activity.


15. At the completion of arid cycle, which one of the following is formed?

  1. Pediplain
  2. Peneplain
  3. Pediment
  4. Panplain
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Pediplain

A pediplain is a gently sloping erosion surface formed by the coalescence of alluvial fans and the gradual downcutting of rivers in arid or semi-arid regions.


16. In which one of the following segments of river course, the landforms have more relief?

  1. Mountain part
  2. Upper plain
  3. Middle plain
  4. Lower plain
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Mountain part

Landforms on mountain parts, such as valleys, gorges, and waterfalls, exhibit greater relief compared to the upper, middle and lower plains.


17. Which of the following scale depends on visible damage caused by the seismic jolts?

  1. Vernier scale
  2. Moho scale
  3. Mercalli scale
  4. Comparative scale
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Mercalli scale

The Mercalli scale measures the intensity of shaking and the effects of an earthquake at a specific location based on observed damage to structures and the environment.


18. Which one of the followings is a depositional landform?

  1. Sink holes
  2. Stalagmite
  3. Uvalas
  4. Swallow holes
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Stalagmite

Stalagmites are depositional landforms found in caves. They form from the deposition of minerals carried by dripping water that evaporates or precipitates as the water drips from the ceiling of the cave.


19. Which one of the followings is commonly formed across the mouth of a river?

  1. Beach
  2. Cliff
  3. Barrier bar
  4. Spit
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Barrier bar

A barrier bar, also known as a baymouth bar, is a depositional feature formed by the accumulation of sediment. This formation occurs due to the interaction between riverine and coastal processes, primarily through the action of longshore currents and waves which transport and deposit sediments.


20. In which one of the following layers of atmosphere, temperature decreases with increasing altitude?

  1. Exosphere
  2. Thermosphere
  3. Stratosphere
  4. Mesosphere
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Mesosphere

In the Mesosphere, temperatures generally decrease with height due to the decreasing concentration of ozone and other heat-absorbing gases as altitude increases. This is in contrast to the Stratosphere and Thermosphere where temperatures generally increase with altitude due to different heating mechanisms.


👉FROM (Q.21-To-Q.40)


21. Ultra-violet rays are absorbed by which one of the following gas?

  1. Oxygen
  2. Carbon dioxide
  3. Ozone
  4. Hydrogen
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Ozone

Ozone (O₃) in the Earth’s stratosphere absorbs the majority of the Sun’s harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation.


22. Which one of the followings is the range of insolation received on the earth’s surface?

  1. 10 to 300 Watt/m2
  2. 70 to 320 Watt/m2
  3. 170 to 1320 Watt/m2
  4. 100 to 875 Watt/m2
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. 70 to 320 Watt/m2

Insolation, or incoming solar radiation, varies significantly based on factors such as geographic location, time of year, and atmospheric conditions. This range encompasses the typical values of solar energy received per square meter on the Earth’s surface.


23. Which one of the following percentages of solar radiation is reflected back to space without heating the earth surface or atmosphere?

  1. 17%
  2. 27%
  3. 35%
  4. 48%
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. 35%

Approximately 35% of the solar radiation that reaches the Earth is reflected back into space by the Earth’s atmosphere, clouds, and surface without being absorbed. This percentage is known as the Earth’s albedo.


24. Which one of the followings is NOT a factor affecting the distribution of temperature on the earth?

  1. Longitude
  2. Latitude
  3. Altitude
  4. Ocean currents
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Longitude

Longitude does not significantly affect the distribution of temperature on Earth. The primary factors that influence temperature distribution are latitude (distance from the equator), altitude (height above sea level), and ocean currents (which can transport warm or cold water, influencing coastal temperatures).


25. Which one of the following instruments is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

  1. Thermometer
  2. Rotameter
  3. Barometer
  4. Planimeter
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Barometer

A barometer is an instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure. It helps in weather forecasting and altitude determination.


26. At which one of the following latitudes, the coriolis force is absent?

  1. Poles
  2. 66.5° N and S latitudes
  3. 23.5° N and S latitudes
  4. Equator
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Equator

Coriolis effect, which causes moving objects to be deflected due to Earth’s rotation, is strongest at the poles and decreases to zero at the Equator.


27. Tropical cyclone in Western Australia is known by which one of the followings?

  1. Hurricanes
  2. Willy-willies
  3. Typhoons
  4. Tornadoes
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Willy-willies

In the Atlantic and Northeast Pacific, they are called hurricanes; in the Northwest Pacific, they are called typhoons; and in Australia, they are often referred to as willy-willies.


28. Which one of the following types of cloud is formed at the highest altitude?

  1. Cirrus
  2. Nimbus
  3. Stratus
  4. Cumulus
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Cirrus

Cirrus clouds form at the highest altitudes, typically above 20,000 feet (6,000 meters). They are thin, wispy clouds composed mostly of ice crystals.


29. Which one of the following gases in NOT a greenhouse gas?

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Chloroflurocarbons
  3. Oxygen
  4. Ozone
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Oxygen

Greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), and ozone, trap heat in the Earth’s atmosphere, contributing to the greenhouse effect.


30. Over which one of the followings, water depth is the least?

  1. Continental shelf
  2. Continental slope
  3. Deep sea plain
  4. Oceanic deeps
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Continental shelf

The continental shelf is the gently sloping submerged portion of a continent that extends from the shoreline to a variable distance seaward where water depth is relatively shallow.


31. Which one of the followings is a warm ocean current?

  1. West Australian current
  2. Benguala current
  3. Humboldt current
  4. Auglhas current
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Auglhas current

The Agulhas Current is a warm ocean current that flows southward along the east coast of Africa, carrying warm water from the Indian Ocean. The West Australian Current, Benguela Current, and Humboldt Current are all cold ocean currents.


32. Which one of the followings is the largest in number in a grassland ecosystem?

  1. Producers
  2. Herbivores
  3. Carnivores
  4. Omnivores
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Producers

In a grassland ecosystem, producers, which are primarily grasses and other plants, are the largest in number. They form the base of the food chain and provide energy for herbivores, which in turn are prey for carnivores and omnivores.


33. Which one of the followings is NOT a category of species for the purpose of their conservation?

  1. Endangered species
  2. Available species
  3. Vulnerable species
  4. Rare species
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Available species

The recognized categories include endangered species, vulnerable species, and rare species.


34. Which one of the following longitudes is selected as the standard meridian of India?

  1. 81°30’ E
  2. 82°00’ E
  3. 82°30’ E
  4. 83°00’ E
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. 82°30’ E

This meridian is used as the reference for Indian Standard Time (IST), which is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Coordinated Universal Time (UTC+5:30).


35. Which one of the following lengths shows the length of Great Himalayan range from west to east?

  1. 2650 km
  2. 2980 km
  3. 2500 km
  4. 1525 km
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. 2500 km

The Great Himalayan range extends approximately 2500 km from west to east. This massive mountain range spans across five countries: India, Nepal, Bhutan, China, and Pakistan.


36. Which one of the followings is the highest peak of Peninsular Plateau?

  1. Dodabetta
  2. Vavul Mala
  3. Makurti
  4. Anaimudi
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Anaimudi

Anaimudi, located in the Western Ghats in Kerala, is the highest peak of the Peninsular Plateau, with an elevation of 2,695 meters (8,842 feet) above sea level.


37. Which one of the following rivers joins with Rann of Kuchchh?

  1. Sabarmati
  2. Luni
  3. Mahi
  4. Betwa
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Luni

The Luni River, which originates in the Aravalli Range in Rajasthan, flows southwest and eventually dissipates into the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat.


38. Which one of the followings is the largest east flowing Peninsular river?

  1. Godavari
  2. Mahanadi
  3. Kaveri
  4. Krishna
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Godavari

The Godavari River is the largest east-flowing river in the Peninsular region of India. It originates in the Western Ghats and flows eastwards across the Deccan Plateau to empty into the Bay of Bengal.


39. The annual range of temperature is the highest at which one of the following places?

  1. Jaisalmer
  2. Allahabad
  3. Kolkata
  4. Guwahati
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Jaisalmer

Jaisalmer, located in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan, experiences extreme temperature variations between summer and winter.


40. Which one of the following dates represents onset of southwest monsoon at Kerala coast?

  1. 01 June
  2. 15 June
  3. 01 July
  4. 15 May
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. 01 June

The onset of the southwest monsoon at the Kerala coast is typically around 01 June.


👉FROM (Q.41-To-Q.60)


41. Annual rainfall variability is the highest in which one of the following states of India?

  1. Kerala
  2. Tamil Nadu
  3. Rajasthan
  4. Bihar
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Rajasthan

Rajasthan experiences the highest annual variability rainfall due to its predominantly arid and semi-arid climate, where rainfall can be highly unpredictable and varies significantly from year to year.


42. Mango showers are common in which one of the following states?

  1. West Bengal and Assam
  2. Odisha and Chhatisgarh
  3. Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
  4. Karnataka and Kerala
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Karnataka and Kerala

Mango showers are pre-monsoon rains that are crucial for the mango crop in these regions, as they help in the ripening of the mangoes.


43. Which one of the following zones of India receives maximum rainfall?

  1. Northern part
  2. Central part
  3. Eastern part
  4. North-eastern part
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. North-eastern part

This region, which includes states like Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, and others, is known for its heavy and prolonged monsoon rains.


44. Which one of the following is NOT a tree species of tropical evergreen forest?

  1. Ebony
  2. Amaltas
  3. Rosewood
  4. Mahogany
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Amaltas

Amaltas (Cassia fistula), also known as the golden shower tree, is a deciduous tree commonly found in tropical and subtropical regions. Ebony, rosewood, and mahogany are tree species typically found in tropical evergreen forests.


45. Moist deciduous forests are found in which one of the following annual rainfall receiving areas in India?

  1. 75 cm to 150 cm
  2. 200 cm to 250 cm
  3. 100 cm to 200 cm
  4. 125 cm to 225 cm
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. 100 cm to 200 cm

Moist deciduous forests shed their leaves seasonally and are found in regions with moderate to high rainfall.


46. Tribal districts constitute about what percentage of the total geographical area of India?

  1. 7%
  2. 33.63 %
  3. 10 %
  4. 59.61 %
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. 33.63 %

Tribal districts are primarily inhabited by various indigenous tribes and are often located in forested and hilly regions, constitute about 33.63% of the total geographical area of India.


47. Which of the following is the total number of Biosphere Reserves in India as per 2018-19 Annual Report, Ministry of Environment and Forests?

  1. 12
  2. 14
  3. 16
  4. 18
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4 18

As of the 2018-19 Annual Report by the Ministry of Environment and Forests, the 18 Biosphere Reserves in India are:

  1. Nilgiri (Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka)
  2. Gulf of Mannar (Tamil Nadu)
  3. Sundarbans (West Bengal)
  4. Nanda Devi (Uttarakhand)
  5. Nokrek (Meghalaya)
  6. Manas (Assam)
  7. Sundarban (West Bengal)
  8. Simlipal (Odisha)
  9. Dibru-Saikhowa (Assam)
  10. Dehang-Debang (Arunachal Pradesh)
  11. Pachmarhi (Madhya Pradesh)
  12. Khangchendzonga (Sikkim)
  13. Agasthyamalai (Tamil Nadu, Kerala)
  14. Achanakmar-Amarkantak (Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh)
  15. Great Nicobar (Andaman and Nicobar Islands)
  16. Cold Desert (Himachal Pradesh)
  17. Kutch (Gujarat)
  18. Seshachalam (Andhra Pradesh)

48. Which one of the followings is older alluvium in the Gangetic plain?

  1. Bhangar
  2. Khadar
  3. Tarai
  4. Bhabar
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Bhangar

Bhangar refers to the older alluvium in the Gangetic plain. It is composed of higher terraces of land formed from deposits that are more consolidated and mature compared to the newer and less compact Khadar.


49. According to Indian Council of Agricultural research (ICAR), which of the following soils has the largest area in India?

  1. Alfisols
  2. Entisols
  3. Inceptisols
  4. Vertisols
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Inceptisols

These soils are typically found in various regions across the country and are characterized by minimal horizon development, making them relatively young and fertile.


50. Which one of the following soils is best suited to cotton cultivation?

  1. Laterite soils
  2. Forest soils
  3. Alluvial soils
  4. Black soils
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Black soils

Black soils are clayey and moisture-retentive, making them ideal for crops like cotton that require good moisture availability during the growing season.


51. Which one of the followings is NOT a measure to reduce soil erosion?

  1. Contour bunding
  2. Cattle grazing
  3. Regulated forestry
  4. Mixed farming
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Cattle grazing

Uncontrolled cattle grazing can contribute to soil erosion by removing vegetation cover and compacting the soil.


52. Drought disaster belongs to which one of the following categories?

  1. Atmospheric
  2. Aquatic
  3. Biological
  4. Terrestrial
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Atmospheric

Drought disaster belongs to the atmospheric category. It is primarily caused by prolonged periods of below-average precipitation, which is a meteorological or atmospheric phenomenon.


53. Which one of the following states is most affected by cyclone disaster?

  1. Telangana
  2. Chhattisgarh
  3. Odisha
  4. Jharkhand
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Odisha

Its coastline along the Bay of Bengal makes it particularly vulnerable to cyclones.


54. Can human loss by natural disasters be controlled completely by advancing
technologies? Choose the correct answer from the followings :

  1. Yes, with advanced technology the human loss can be controlled completely.
  2. No, the human loss can be controlled partially.
  3. No technology can control the human loss.
  4. No one is capable to control the human loss.
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. No, the human loss can be controlled partially.

While advanced technology can significantly reduce human loss by improving prediction, early warning systems, and disaster preparedness, it cannot completely eliminate the risk of human loss.


55. Which one of the following states is most affected by both landslide and earthquake ?

  1. Haryana
  2. Delhi
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Uttarakhand
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Uttarakhand

It is located in the seismically active Himalayan region, making it prone to frequent earthquakes, and its hilly terrain makes it susceptible to landslides, especially during the monsoon season.


56. During which one of the following years, Disaster Management Act was passed?

  1. 2000
  2. 2003
  3. 2005
  4. 2007
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. 2005

This act provides a legal and institutional framework for disaster management at the national, state, and district levels.


57. On which one of the following maps , the greatest details are available?

  1. Atlas map
  2. Wall map
  3. Topographical map
  4. Cadastral map
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Cadastral map

Cadastral maps show property boundaries, land ownership, and detailed information about individual plots of land, making them highly detailed and specific.


58. Ancient Indian scholars divided the whole world into which one of the following ‘Dwipas’?

  1. 7
  2. 6
  3. 5
  4. 4
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. 7

Ancient Indian scholars divided the whole world into seven ‘Dwipas’ or continents. These are known as Jambu Dwipa, Plaksha Dwipa, Shalmali Dwipa, Kusha Dwipa, Krauncha Dwipa, Shaka Dwipa, and Pushkara Dwipa.


59. Which one of the following maps belongs to cultural maps?

  1. Relief map
  2. Political map
  3. Climatic map
  4. Soil map
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Political map

Political maps are considered cultural maps because they display human-created features such as boundaries, cities, and countries, reflecting the political and cultural aspects of a region.


60. Which one of the following instruments is used to measure distance on a map?

  1. Planimeter
  2. Micrometer
  3. Rotameter
  4. Barometer
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

1. Planimeter

In the context of measuring distances on a map and calculating areas, the opisometer and the planimeter play distinct roles. While the opisometer is specifically designed for measuring distances, the planimeter focuses on determining the area enclosed by a shape. However, if the opisometer is not available, the planimeter can serve as a suitable alternative for measuring distances.


👉FROM (Q.61-To-Q.80)


61. Generally which one of the following scales is NOT given on topographical map?

  1. Statement scale
  2. Representative Fraction
  3. Graphical scale
  4. Diagonal scale
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Diagonal scale

Topographical maps usually provide a statement scale, representative fraction (RF), and graphical scale to represent distances and relationships accurately. Diagonal scales are typically used for more specialized engineering or architectural purposes.


62. Which one of the following latitudes is a great circle?

  1. 66.5° N latitude
  2. 40.00° N latitude
  3. 23.50° N latitude
  4. 00.0° latitude
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. 00.0° latitude

The 00.0° latitude, also known as the Equator, is a great circle.


63. In one hour, how many degrees longitudes sun traverses due to the rotation of earth?

  1. 10°
  2. 12°
  3. 15°
  4. 18°
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. 15°

The Sun traverses 15° of longitude in one hour due to the Earth’s rotation. This is because the Earth completes a 360° rotation in 24 hours (360° / 24 hours = 15° per hour).


64. The distance between two longitudes (one degree extension) at equator is equavalent to which one of the followings?

  1. Approximately 109.3 km
  2. Approximately 110.3 km
  3. Approximately 111.3 km
  4. Approximately 112.3 km
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Approximately 111.3 km

This value is derived from the Earth’s circumference, which is about 40,075 km, divided by 360 degrees of longitude (40,075 km / 360 = 111.3 km per degree).


65. To select the standard meridian for calculation of time of a country, which one of the following criteria is selected?

  1. Divisible by 5
  2. Divisible by 7.5
  3. Divisible by 10
  4. Divisible by 12.5
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Divisible by 7.5

Each time zone generally covers 15 degrees of longitude, and the standard meridian is usually centered in the time zone, which makes it a multiple of 7.5 degrees (e.g., 0°, 7.5°, 15°, 22.5°, etc.).


66. Which of the following projections is most appropriate for navigation at sea routes?

  1. Mereator Projection
  2. Conical projection with one standard parallel
  3. Cylindrical equal area projection
  4. Conical projection with two standard parallel
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

1 Mereator Projection

The Mercator projection is most appropriate for navigation at sea routes. It preserves angles and shapes of small objects, making it useful for maritime navigation because it allows sailors to plot straight-line courses (rhumb lines) easily.


67. On which one of the following topographical maps, the maximum details are shown?

  1. 15’×15’ map
  2. 30’×30’ map
  3. 18×18 map
  4. 48×48 map
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. 15’×15’ map

The smaller the area covered by the map, the more detailed and precise the information it can display.


68. Two or more contours are merged on the map in which one of the following landforms?

  1. Spur
  2. ‘V’ Shaped valley
  3. ‘U’ Shaped valley
  4. Waterfall
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Waterfall

In waterfall the elevation changes abruptly over a very short horizontal distance, resulting in the contours being drawn very close together or even merging.


69. In which of the following aerial photographs, the camera axis will not touch the ground plane?

  1. Vertical photographs
  2. Horizontal photographs
  3. Low oblique photographs
  4. High oblique photographs
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Horizontal photographs

The correct answer is a Horizontal photograph. There are several types of aerial photography. These are as follows:

  1. Vertical Aerial Photography: In vertical aerial photography, the camera axis is perfectly vertical—meaning it points directly down at the ground.
  2. Low Oblique Aerial Photography: The camera axis is tilted more than 3 degrees, but the horizon is not visible in the image.
  3. High Oblique Aerial Photography: Tilting the camera axis approximately 60 degrees. The resulting images cover a larger area, and the horizon is visible.
  4. Combined aerial photography: Combines vertical and oblique images. 
  5. Orthophotomap: It’s like a “true” map, with consistent scale and accurate measurements.
  6. Leaf-Off/Leaf-On Aerial Photography: Leaf-off photos are taken during winter when trees have shed their leaves. Leaf-on photos are captured during the growing season when foliage is abundant.
  7. Horizontal Aerial Photography: The camera axis will not touch the ground plane, and consists of two or more drone images captured in a single row. 

70. Which one of the following bands of electromagnetic spectrum has smallest wave length values?

  1. Red
  2. Green
  3. Violet
  4. Infrared
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Violet

In the electromagnetic spectrum, the wavelength of violet light ranges from about 380 to 450 nanometers, which is shortest.


71. Which one of the followings is the direction of door of Stevenson Screen in northern hemisphere?

  1. North
  2. South
  3. East
  4. West
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. North

This orientation helps to minimize direct sunlight entering the screen when it is opened, ensuring that the temperature and humidity measurements inside are not affected by the sun’s heat.


72. Which one of the following approaches of human geography is the latest one?

  1. Spatial organisation
  2. Areal Differentiation
  3. Post-Modernism
  4. Regional Analysis
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Post-Modernism

Post-Modernism is the latest approach among the ones listed in human geography. This approach emerged in the late 20th century and focuses on understanding the complexities and diversities of human experiences.


73. By which one of the following methods actual growth of population is computed?

  1. Births − deaths + migration
  2. Births − deaths − in migration + out migration
  3. Births + deaths − in migration + out migration
  4. Births − deaths + in migration − out migration
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Births − deaths + in migration − out migration

This formula accounts for natural increase (births minus deaths) and net migration (in migration minus out migration) to determine the total change in population.


74. Which one of the following developments in technology is the latest?

  1. Sanitation and medical
  2. Information and computer
  3. Transportation
  4. Industrial
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Information and computer

Advances in this field, particularly in the last few decades, have revolutionized how we communicate, process information, and perform various tasks, marking significant technological progress compared to earlier developments.


75. With which one of the following approaches of human development, International Labour Organisation is associated?

  1. Welfare Approach
  2. Income Approach
  3. Basic Needs Approach
  4. Capability Approach
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Basic Needs Approach

This approach focuses on ensuring that all individuals have access to basic necessities such as food, water, shelter, education, and healthcare, aiming to improve the quality of life and overall well-being of people.


76. Which one of the followings is known as ‘Gold Collar’ workers?

  1. Secondary workers
  2. Quinary workers
  3. Quaternary workers
  4. Tertiary workers
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Quinary workers

These individuals are at the highest level of decision-making and include top executives, government officials, and other high-level managers who possess specialized knowledge and skills.


77. ‘Slash and burn’ agriculture is known by which one of the followings in Central America?

  1. Milpa
  2. Jhuming
  3. Ladang
  4. Roka
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Milpa

This traditional method involves cutting down and burning vegetation to create fields for cultivation.


78. Which one of the followings is termed as ‘truck farming’?

  1. Viticulture
  2. Poultry farming
  3. Cattle rearing
  4. Vegetables farming
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Vegetables farming

This type of farming involves growing vegetables on a large scale and transporting them to markets, often using trucks.


79. Sugar industries are located at which one of the followings?

  1. Near to market
  2. Near to raw material
  3. Near to labour availability
  4. Near to energy source
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Near to raw material

This is because sugarcane, the primary raw material for sugar production, is bulky and perishable, so processing it close to the source minimizes transportation costs and ensures the cane is processed while still fresh.


80. Which one of the followings is quinary activity ?

  1. Policy formulators
  2. Banking
  3. Railway services
  4. Retail traders
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Policy formulators

Quinary activities are high-level decision-making roles and include activities such as policy formulation, which involves creating and implementing policies at the highest levels of government and corporate sectors.


👉FROM (Q.81-To-Q.100)


81. On the basis of employment, which one of the following is the largest tertiary activities in the world?

  1. Rail Services
  2. Telecommunications
  3. Tourism
  4. Wholesale traders
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Tourism

The tourism industry employs a vast number of people globally, ranges from travel agents, hotel staff, tour guides, and many others in various related sectors.


82. Which of the following is NOT a projection based on location of source of light?

  1. Gnomonic
  2. Stereographic
  3. Conical
  4. Orthographic
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Conical

Projections like Gnomonic, Stereographic, and Orthographic involve a light source projecting the Earth’s surface onto a plane. In contrast, conical projections involve projecting the Earth’s surface onto a cone placed over the globe.


83. Trans-Siberian Railway runs between which of the following two terminals?

  1. St. Petersburg and chita
  2. St. Petersburg and Vladivostok
  3. Moscow and chita
  4. Moscow and Vladivostok
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. St. Petersburg and Vladivostok

The Trans-Siberian Railway, historically known as the Great Siberian Route, is an awe-inspiring railway system that connects European Russia to the Russian Far East. The journey begins at the Yaroslavsky station in Moscow. The Trans-Siberian Railway’s eastern terminus is the vibrant port city of Vladivostok. Beyond Vladivostok, the railway continues to the Astafiev Cape, where the tracks almost kiss the sea. 


84. Panama canal joins which of the following two water bodies?

  1. Mediterranea sea and Indian ocean
  2. Atalantic Ocean and Caribbean sea
  3. Gulf of Panama and Gulf of Mexico
  4. Atalantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Atalantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean

The Panama Canal joins the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean, providing a crucial maritime shortcut that significantly reduces the travel distance for ships between these two major bodies of water.


85. Great Britain abolished slave trade during which one of the following years?

  1. 1805
  2. 1807
  3. 1810
  4. 1812
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. 1807

Great Britain abolished the slave trade in the year 1807 with the passing of the Abolition of the Slave Trade Act.


86. World Trade Organisation (WTO) came into existence during which one of the following years?

  1. 1995
  2. 1996
  3. 1997
  4. 1998
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. 1995

The World Trade Organisation (WTO) came into existence on January 1, 1995, replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) and expanding its scope to cover trade in goods, services, and intellectual property.


87. The headquarter of European Union is located at which one of the followings?

  1. Minsk
  2. Jakarta
  3. Brussels
  4. Vienna
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Brussels

Brussels, Belgium is the de facto capital of the EU and hosts major EU institutions, including the European Commission and the European Council.


88. Which one of the followings is an out port?

  1. Piraeus
  2. Kolkala
  3. Manchester
  4. Memphis
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Piraeus

Piraeus is an out port. It serves as the port of Athens, Greece, and is one of the largest and busiest ports in Europe.


89. ‘New Flower’ is the meaning of which one of the following cities?

  1. Dar es Salaam
  2. Saint-Denis
  3. Sao Tome
  4. Addis Ababa
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Addis Ababa

The name comes from the Amharic language, in which “Addis” means “new” and “Ababa” means “flower.”


90. Which one of the following is NOT a priority of Urban Strategy of the United Nations Development Programme.

  1. Increasing shelter for urban poor
  2. Arranging employment for youths
  3. Reducing air pollution
  4. Providing education and primary health care
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Arranging employment for youths

While arranging employment for youths is important, it is not specifically listed as a priority of the Urban Strategy of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).


91. The first population census in India was conducted during which one of the following years?

  1. 1862
  2. 1872
  3. 1881
  4. 1891
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. 1872

The first population census in India was conducted in the year 1872. However, the first synchronous census, covering the entire country at the same time, was conducted in 1881.


92. Physiological density is computed by which one of the following?

  1. Total population/Net cultivated area
  2. Total population/Gross cultivated area
  3. Total population/Total geographical area
  4. Total population/Total geographical area excluding forest cover
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Total population/Net cultivated area

Physiological density is computed by dividing the total population by the net cultivated area. This measure provides insight into the pressure that the population exerts on the productive land available for agriculture.


93. Which one of the followings is the characteristics of first phase of population growth in India?

  1. High birth rate and high death rate
  2. High birth rate and low death rate
  3. Low birth rate and low death rate
  4. Low birth rate and high death rate
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. High birth rate and high death rate

This phase typically corresponds to pre-industrial societies where medical facilities, sanitation, and overall living conditions are poor, leading to high mortality rates.


94. Which one of the following families of modern Indian languages has highest number of speakers?

  1. Austric
  2. Dravidian
  3. Indo-European
  4. Sino-Tibetan
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Indo-European

This family includes major languages such as Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, and Punjabi, which are widely spoken across the country.


95. According to 2011 Indian census, which one of the following religious groups has third rank in terms of population strength?

  1. Christians
  2. Hindus
  3. Muslims
  4. Sikhs
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Christians

According to the 2011 Indian census, Christians hold the third rank in terms of population strength among religious groups in India. Hindus and Muslims rank first and second, respectively.


96. Information on reasons for migration in India were incorporated in which one of the following census years?

  1. 1951
  2. 1971
  3. 1981
  4. 1991
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. 1981

This census data collection helped to understand the various factors driving migration within the country, such as employment, education, marriage, and other social and economic reasons.


97. According to 2011 census, which one of the followings is the correct total literacy rate of India?

  1. 67.04 %
  2. 69.04 %
  3. 71.04 %
  4. 74.04 %
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. 74.04 %

This figure represents the percentage of the population aged seven years and above who can read and write with understanding.


98. The Report “Our Common Future” was published during which one of the following years?

  1. 1972
  2. 1974
  3. 1987
  4. 1993
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. 1987

The report “Our Common Future,” also known as the Brundtland Report, was published in 1987. This landmark document was produced by the World Commission on Environment and Development and laid the foundation for the concept of sustainable development.


99. During which one of the following years, the first Human Development Report by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) was published?

  1. 1988
  2. 1989
  3. 1990
  4. 1991
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. 1990

This report introduced the Human Development Index (HDI) and shifted the focus of development economics from national income accounting to people-centered policies.


100. Which one of the followings is NOT a type of rural settlements?

  1. Clustered
  2. Semi Clustered
  3. Dispersed
  4. Linear
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Linear

Rural settlements come in different types, influenced by history, culture, and the environment.

  1. In clustered/Compact settlements, families live in close proximity to each other. 
  2. In Semi-cluster settlements consist of uneven distribution due to physical variations. Factors like hills, rivers, forests, or other natural features shape where people build their homes. 
  3. Circular settlements feature a central open space surrounded by structures.
  4. Dispersed settlements have low population density, with homes scattered across the landscape.
  5. Nucleated settlements have higher population density, with structures concentrated in a specific area. These can be villages or hamlets. 

Rural settlements vary in their layout—clustered, semi-clustered, hamleted, and dispersed—each reflecting the interplay of geography, culture, and social context.


👉FROM (Q.101-To-Q.120)


101. Which one of the followings is a modern city?

  1. Madurai
  2. Chandigarh
  3. Delhi
  4. Allahabad
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Chandigarh

Chandigarh is a modern city, designed by the famous architect Le Corbusier in the 1950s. It is known for its urban planning and modern architecture, distinguishing it from historically older cities like Madurai, Delhi, and Allahabad.


102. Which one of the following is an industrial city?

  1. Hugli
  2. Ambala
  3. Jaisalmer
  4. Imphal
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Hugli

Hugli, located in West Bengal, is known as an industrial city. It is part of the Kolkata metropolitan area and has a significant presence of industries, particularly those related to jute, textiles, and manufacturing.


103. Which one of the following crops is grown thrice in an agricultural year in West Bengal?

  1. Wheat
  2. Rice
  3. Gram
  4. Jowar
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Rice

Rice is grown thrice in an agricultural year in West Bengal. The three cropping seasons are Aus, Aman, and Boro, allowing farmers to cultivate rice throughout the year.


104. Coffee is produced prominently in which one of the following part of India?

  1. Foothills of Uttarakhand
  2. Foothills of West Bengal
  3. Nilgiri Hills
  4. Arawali Hills
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Nilgiri Hills

Coffee is prominently produced in the Nilgiri Hills, which are part of the Western Ghats in southern India. The region’s climate and elevation provide ideal conditions for coffee cultivation.


105. Which one of the following is NOT an essential for the success of Green Revolution?

  1. Assured irrigation
  2. Availability of chemical fertilizers
  3. High yielding varieties of seeds
  4. Availability of cheap labour
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

4. Availability of cheap labour

The success of the Green Revolution primarily depended on assured irrigation, availability of chemical fertilizers, and high-yielding varieties of seeds.


106. Total utilisable water resource in India is represented by which one of the followings?

  1. 1011 cubic km
  2. 1122 cubic km
  3. 1233 cubic km
  4. 1344 cubic km
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. 1122 cubic km

The total utilisable water resource in India is represented by 1122 cubic kilometers. This includes both surface and groundwater resources that can be harnessed for various uses.


107. Which one of the following river basin is located to the southern most position?

  1. Tapi basin
  2. Godavari basin
  3. Kaveri basin
  4. Mahanadi basin
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Kaveri basin

The Kaveri basin is located in the southernmost position compared to the Tapi, Godavari, and Mahanadi basins.


108. Which one of the following groups was formed against social evils in Ralegan Siddhi?

  1. Tarun Mandal
  2. Barun Mandal
  3. Saran Mandal
  4. Karan Mandal
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Tarun Mandal

Ralegan Siddhi village in Maharashtra is well-known for its community-led initiatives, largely attributed to the efforts of social activist Anna Hazare.


109. Which one of the following number of village/villages were selected from each district as ‘Jal Gram’ under Jal Kranti Abhiyan?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. 1

110. Which one of the following copper mines is located to the westernmost location?

  1. Balaghat
  2. Singhbhum
  3. Udaipur
  4. Hazaribagh
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Udaipur

Udaipur, located in Rajasthan, is the westernmost location among the given copper mines. The other mines, Balaghat, Singhbhum, and Hazaribagh, are located further east in India.


111. Which one of the following energies is polluting air?

  1. Wind
  2. Petroleum
  3. Tidal
  4. Solar
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Petroleum

Petroleum energy releases various pollutants, including carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, and nitrogen oxides, which contribute to air pollution.


112. Which one of the following steel plant was established with British collaboration?

  1. Durgapur
  2. Rourkela
  3. Bhilai
  4. Bokaro
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Durgapur
Steel PlantCollaborator
1. DurgapurBritish
2. RourkelaGermany
3. BhilaiSoviet Union
4. BokaroSoviet Union

113. Which one of the following major industrial regions is northern-most by location?

  1. Mumbai Pune Region
  2. Kollam – Thiruanathapuram Region
  3. Gurugram – Delhi – Meerut Region
  4. Gujarat Region
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Gurugram – Delhi – Meerut Region

The Gurugram – Delhi – Meerut Region is located in the northern part of India, in the state of Haryana and Uttar Pradesh, near the national capital, Delhi.


114. Bharmaur tehsil of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh is dominated by which one of the following tribes?

  1. Gaddi
  2. Bhil
  3. Santhal
  4. Bhutia
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Gaddi

Bharmaur tehsil of Chamba district in Himachal Pradesh is predominantly inhabited by the Gaddi tribe. The Gaddis are a pastoral community known for their unique culture and traditions in the Himalayan region.


115. During which one of the following years, air transport in India was nationalised?

  1. 1947
  2. 1951
  3. 1953
  4. 1955
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. 1953

The Government of India passed the Air Corporations Act, leading to the establishment of Indian Airlines Corporation and Air India International in 1953.


116. To study the trend of three variables over different periods, which one of the following graphical presentation is most suitable?

  1. Bar graph
  2. Line graph
  3. Polygraph
  4. Percentage bar graph
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Polygraph

A polygraph allows for multiple lines to be plotted on the same graph, making it easier to compare the trends of different variables over time.


117. To study the spatial distribution of population density, which one of the following techniques is most suitable?

  1. Choropleth method
  2. Flow map
  3. Dot method
  4. Isopleth map
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

3. Dot method


118. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of raster data model?

  1. Accurate map output
  2. Simple data structure
  3. Compatible with satellite imagery
  4. Easy and efficient overlaying
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023
  1. Accurate map output

Raster data models are known for their simple data structure, compatibility with satellite imagery, and ease of overlaying different data layers. However, they are generally not known for producing accurate map outputs compared to vector data models.


119. Which one of the followings is NOT an impact of drought?

  1. Crop failure
  2. People prosperity
  3. Hunger and malnutrition
  4. Economic difficulties
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. People prosperity

Drought typically leads to negative impacts such as crop failure, hunger and malnutrition, and economic difficulties. “People prosperity” is not an impact of drought.


120. Which of the following analysis is called proximity analysis?

  1. Overlay Analysis
  2. Buffer Operation
  3. Network Analysis
  4. Digital Terrain Model
Answer: KVS LDCE Geography Question Paper and Answers pdf 2023

2. Buffer Operation

Buffer operation is called proximity analysis. It involves creating buffer zones around spatial features to analyze the areas within a certain distance from these features, which is a common method for assessing proximity.


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